I'm not an analytic number theorist, but TK's claimed disproof of the Riemann hypothesis:

https://figshare.com/articles/preprint/Untitled_Item/14776146

appears to be quite sound and cleverly constructed to me. To be clear, I'm yet to spot any terminal flaw after 2 days of rigorous scrutiny. I'm therefore interested in the opinions of the experts here on the paper.

For the quality if the discussion, it would help if the comments are as factual as possible. Also, if you don't REALLY know analytic number theory, kindly don't comment on the technicalities of the paper.